Are Marriage Vows Immoral?


We are repeatedly informed that the God of Christianity has absolute morals. Yet when we review the claims made about morality within the Christian world, we are often left scratching our heads. Clearly the claimed system of God’s absolute morality is nothing like what we think of as humans, and we puzzle and puzzle over what gets priority in this God’s world.

We think that genocide and the killing of baby boys is always immoral, but in this absolute morality of the Christian God, apparently at times it is morally acceptable. Numbers 31:17, Judges 20:48, and 1 Samuel 15:3. We think that murderers should be punished, not excused. And most certainly that their infant son should not be killed for their crime. 2 Sam. 12:15. But this is what is required in this absolute Christian God Morality scheme.

And we are told that the times of the Tanakh were different, and God related to the people in a different manner, imposing a different morality. (Sounding like a morality based on relativism, not being absolute.)

Taking just one example--Why did God change His position on taking vows? Did He discover that there is some scale of morality which allows a vow-taker to supercede other moral laws?


God, in the form of Jesus, makes His position on vows very clear. Don’t. “I say to you, do not swear at all.” Matthew 5:34. This is a change from what God had previously stated in Mosaic Law.

Under Moses, if one made a vow, there were certain requirements. Such as: they must not delay in performing it. Deut. 23:21. God even provided for a priority of vows, in that a woman could be overruled by her father or husband. Numbers 30:5 & 8. If a man makes a vow, he cannot break it, but must complete it. Num. 30:2

Following the imposition of the Mosaic Law, we have instances of people swearing to do things that are bound by them. Spies to Rahab the Harlot. Joshua 2:12. David to Saul. 1 Sam. 24:22. David to Bathsheba. 1 Kings 1:13. All of Israel. Ezra 10:5. On this last one, God was upset because they swore falsely, which was a problem. Jer. 5:2

Evidently taking vows was not only contemplated by God’s morality, it was regulated, and enforced. God did state that taking a vow would never be mandatory (Deut. 23:22) but one had the option. Until God said “Do not swear at all” in the Sermon on the Mount. (I have seen it argued that this is not a change in Mosaic Law. It most certainly is! Prior to Jesus, one could or could not take a vow, but if one did, there were certain limitations. After Jesus, one cannot take a vow. Period. That is a change.)

The author of James definitely got the memo, and reiterates God’s new commandment. (James 5:12.) The author of Hebrews apparently missed the new commandment and wrote about taking oaths as still acceptable. (Heb. 6:16) The author of Acts was absent that day, so they, too, seemed to think that God’s morality still provided for taking vows. (Acts 18:18 and 21:23)

Did God’s morality regarding taking vows change? Did something happen where God decided that swearing to do something was not such a good idea, and based upon new information, did away with it altogether?

I can’t help but wonder when God imposed the new rule on swearing, He was thinking about Jephthah and how poorly THAT all turned out.

Jephthah had a Gileadite father, but his mother was a whore. So all the legitimate Gileadites, in what has been unfortunately historical for Christian morality, threw him out of the community-- not based on what he did, but on something over which he had no control. (How Jephthah was to blame for who his mother was is beyond anyone’s guess. Still, he gets the punishment for his Mother’s occupation.)

It turns out that Jephthah was a big, strapping fellow, and being a courageous outcast, attracted a number of other outcasts, into an army. The Gileadites became threatened by the Ammonites. They needed Jephthah’s army. Again, in typical Christian manner, when Jephthah was needed, his heritage became no longer an issue, and the elders of Gilead swore to not only accept him, but to make him their leader. Despite the fact his mother was a whore.

Jephthah agreed to fight the Ammonites. He had an army and the support of his old community, although he lacked the support of the other tribes of Israel.

But Jephthah wanted more. An Edge. A Nudge. He makes a vow. If God would provide him the victory over the Ammonites, Jephthah swore upon arriving home, to provide as a burnt offering to God whatever comes out of his door.

And tragedy occurs. God provides the victory. And the first thing that meets Jephthah when he comes home is his only child—his daughter. Jephthah immediately realizes what he must do, and with wisdom beyond her years, his daughter (we never know her name) says, “You made an oath. You have to keep it. Do what you have to do.”

Jephthah is bound by his oath, and sacrifices his daughter. Now, in our humanistic determination, we would find this act immoral. While breaking an oath is assuredly not encouraged, it can be remedied here without the necessary loss of life.

Somehow, in this absolute morality proposed by the Christian viewpoint, breaking an oath is MORE immoral than killing an innocent child. If I swear to God if He gives a good parking spot, I will break the arms of my son—is it a greater sin to not break his arms upon getting right next to the handicap spot?

Is this why God, in the form of Jesus, decides to do away with swearing altogether, since He realized (upon becoming human) the ludicrous notion that keeping an oath is more important than human life or harm? But if God is changing his mind as to what is moral for humans, we end up with a non-absolute moral system in which to work. Just as secular humanists attempt to frame a moral system, and persuade others of its viability, the Christian is equally attempting to guess at what God wants humans to do and persuade others of the viability. We are no different—you and I.

[A side note for which I apologize, but it will come up, so I might as well head it off as best I can now.

Apologists typically argue that Jephthah did not actually kill his daughter, but rather devoted her to the Lord. The arguments in favor of this claim are:

1. Mosaic Law did not allow for human sacrifice.
2. Jephthah’s daughter’s response.
3. Other children (Samuel) were devoted to the Lord similarly.

The arguments against this claim are:

1. Mosaic Law is not clear about human sacrifice.
2. Jephthah’s response.
3. The “Festival of Lament.”

It leaves us in a bit of a quandary. I think the strongest argument against her being killed is in her recorded response. Upon learning the vow, she asks for a two-month reprieve (violating Deut. 23:21) to grieve over the fact that she will never lose her virginity. After it is recorded in the cryptic “Jephthah did what he vowed to do” we receive the further notation that she never had sex.

It seems odd (unless there was some cultural significance to this) that upon learning she would die, her biggest concern was that she would never get to have sex. While sex is great, at the moment, we would think dying would have a much higher focus of her attention. Further, if she was killed, the phrase, “And she never knew any man” become superfluous. Like saying, “Jephthah killed her, and on, by the way, she missed Yom Kippur next year.”

However, on the flip side, Jephthah’s reaction is extreme, if she was devoted to the Lord. Apologists claim that this is because his lineage would end (as she was an only daughter.) Why? There is nothing to indicate that Jephthah could not have any more children. This was a time of multiple wives. Of kidnapping other people’s daughters to bear children. (Judges 21:21) The Judge before Jephthah had 30 sons and (coincidently) the Judge after Jephthah also had 30 sons.

Jephthah had no inheritance (whore’s son, remember) and the story of his possessions is questionable. (Lived in Tob, but his house is listed in Mizpah.) There is no indication, and it is pure speculation, that Jephthah had any interest in continuing his lineage.

The passage records that each year, the daughters of Israel held a four-day event in which they recounted, or rehearsed the story of Jephthah’s daughter. (The word “lament” in the KJV is bad translation. Sorry.) Not even Samuel got that, and he was devoted, too! The impression left here is more of a tragedy along the lines of a death, rather than a life of servitude.

Mosaic Law does not help the apologist. According to Leviticus 27:3, if a person is consecrated by vow, they can be redeemed by payment to the priest. Jephthah would have had to pay 10 shekels to save her. (Lev. 27:5) A two-month lament? Tearing of clothes? After saving Gilead, we would think Jephthah could spring 10 shekels to save her.

BUT, Lev. 27:28 says no devoted offering may be redeemed. Worse, Lev. 27:29 says that one devoted to destruction could not be redeemed, but must be put to death. What is “devoted to destruction?” If the apologist claims that Jephthah’s daughter was not to be killed but was devoted to be the equivalent of a burnt offering, it would certainly seem feasible that Lev. 27:29 still mandates her death.

But Deut. 18:10 prohibits having one’s sons or daughters “pass through fire” which is claimed to be an idiom of child-sacrifice. Deut. 18:10 doesn’t say anything about fulfilling vows, though.

The best part of Christian “absolute” morals is that there are so many conflicting statements. If Jephthah devoted his daughter can he redeem her? “Yes”—Lev. 27:3, or ”No”-Lev. 27:28. If she was devoted to destruction, must she be killed? “Yes” – Lev. 27:29, “But not by fire” – Deut. 18:10. But Jephthah vowed a burnt offering. Which means, regardless of the apologetic position, he either breaks his vow, or breaks Mosaic law.

Under God’s “absolute morals” what is worse? See—we don’t know! It is all up to argument, and persuasiveness. Just. Like. Relative morals.

My resolution to the problem: I am convinced that Mosaic Law did not develop until the period of the divided kingdoms. The story of Jephthah is a legend from a time prior to Mosaic Law in which a Canaanite sacrificed his daughter in thanks for a victory. His story was incorporated in the Hebrew culture, and then made sanitized and made cryptic by removal of the actual sacrifice.)

As I read the tale of Jephthah, I can’t help but reflect on King David’s similar situation. King David committed murder (perhaps) but certainly adultery—a crime punishable by death. Yet in this Christian morality scheme, there appears to be an out. An exception. Regardless of the immorality or morality of an action, God can impose mercy, and exempt the person from punishment.

What is so “absolute” about that? We have an arbitrary determination of who gets exempted from punishment. Further, God, within this scheme of mercy, can inflict death as a punishment for this crime on another person! (See also “David’s Census.”)

At least with King David, we see that he did something wrong. There is nothing recorded that Jephthah did immoral. There is no reason why God could not have intervened, provided mercy, and saved the daughter. When asked “Why didn’t God?” all that can be said is, “We don’t know.”

Exactly. This system of “absolute morality” has introduced an arbitrary factor (God) in which we can no longer determine when they will step in, when they will not, nor the results. We see that God changes His mind about the morality of vows. We have no information as to the priority of morals—which is more important: death or keeping a vow or following the law?

Although it is not the sole issue with the concept of absolute morality, in this area what I see is one being absolutely ground in arbitrary:

Naturalist: As there is no way for us to determine absolute morality, we must determine it as best we can with what we have.
Christian: Ah—but we have Absolute Morality!
Naturalist: Grounded in what?
Christian: God.

Naturalist: And what is God’s morality?
Christian: As there is no way for us to determine God’s morality, we must determine it as best we can with what we have.
Naturalist: And this is different from me….how?

13 comments:

nsfl said...

Really nice post, as always.

The only "Absolute" is that Christians fail to see the evolution of their own morality.

Aaron Kinney said...

Sweet. And on a similar note, how do marriage vows apply to the immaculate conception of Jesus?

Mary got impregnated by a being that was not her husband. She was not married to God IIRC. Jesus was a bastard; an illegitimate love child. He was conceived and born out of wedlock (or is it in violation of wedlock?)

What if a married Christian woman gets pregnant (non-miraculously) from a man that is not her husband? Isnt that a sin? How is Jesus' conception any different?

Oh, because it was from God! He can forcibly impregnate married women and its not wrong, cause its God that did it!

And was Mary technically raped? Forcible impregnation perhaps? She didnt consent to the act. It seems to be the spiritual equivalent of date rape via GHB.

At any rate, Jesus was a bastard love child.

O'Brien said...

I think Marcion was correct in rejecting the Old Testament.

nsfl said...

Robert,

So while Marcion was right in ascribing the message of the OT/NT as corrupted and only correctly delivered by Paul, he was wrong on his view that marriage itself was evil?

Why is it that God can't ever seem to send us a prophet who knows it all? Or at least, get them to write something down that makes sense (ie, Jesus didn't bother to).

Aaron Kinney said...

Rich,

You got it backwards. The question is "When in the Bible did Mary consent to being impregnated by someone (or thing) other than her husband?"

Besides, the Bible makes implicitly clear numerous times that the consent of a woman is irrelevant to any action involving her genitals.

And finally, you failed to address my claims of Jesus being a bastard love child. So I take it by your silence that you have no problem with that?

Aaron Kinney said...

Rich,

I decided to do you one better. I found the Bible passages from Luke that prove that MAry's consent was never even considered. All she does is accept the inevitable after she is TOLD that she is getting pregnant. She was never asked for permission. She had no choice but to deal with it:


1:29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.
1:30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:
1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
1:34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
"How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"
Was Joseph the father of Jesus?
1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
1:36 And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.
1:37 For with God nothing shall be impossible.
1:38 And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.

O'Brien said...

Daniel:

As far as I know, Marcion did not claim marriage was evil, although he preached a strict asceticism, which is one of the main reasons why there are no Marcionite Christians today.

In any event, I think Marcion was in error on a number of points, but he was spot on in his view of God and his rejection of the OT. (In fact, I think it is noteworthy that he displayed such evolved sensibilities almost 2000 years ago.)

Aaron Kinney said...

Vynette,

Thank you confirming the facts regarding Jesus' illegitimate conception (assuming he ever existed).

Regarding your question, I cannot speak for all atheists of course, but I, for one, reject the notion of a creator of everything. A "supreme intelligence" isnt necesarily a "God" in terms of the creator of everything that exists.

Indeed, one could theorize that a supreme intelligence could eventually evolve into being in the universe while not actually being responsible for the universes creation. So what Im trying to say is that I do not define "God" to be a "supreme intelligence" per se, but the "creator of all of existence". And although I admit that my definition of God would probably be inclusive of the property of "supreme intelligence," I want to make it clear that I do not believe that a "supreme intelligence" is necessarily a creator-God.

In this way, I believe that an atheist could believe in the existence of (or the possibility of the existence of) a "supreme intelligence," and still be consistent with their atheist worldview.

Finally, for the record, while I do admit the possibility of a supreme intelligence being able to exist in theory, I do not believe that one currently does exist.

But of course other atheists may disagree with me on everything I just said.

DagoodS said...

Vynette,

If God did change, what would it look like? A new set of instructions, indicating the change. A different persona. Explanations for why the old way was not quite correct. Persons quibbling over the change and why it came into effect.

Exactly what we see between the God of the Tanakh and the God of the New Testament.

It is a nice sentiment to affirmatively state, “God did not change” but how can you possibly prove it? We have no way for outside determination.

Further, the concept that God did not change, but man’s concept of morals evolved is likewise difficult to demonstrate. Can you explain how wearing any type of clothing to not wearing clothing of mixed cloths is an evolution? And then going back to mixed clothing, but no gold or pearls? What is the evolution in that? And did we reach a moral high in 100 CE and never progressed since, or is there a new set of morals since the closure of the canon?

And what is the evolution in our thinking? Were we wrong in the Tanakh? Did God actually have a limitation on making vows, but people thought they could make vows?

These statements are nice statements, but can you put any meat on these bones?

I cannot speak for all atheists, of course, but my being convinced there is no God has nothing to do with “Churchianity.” Sorry.

SuperSkeptic said...

DagoodS/Vynette,

DagoodS wrote:
It is a nice sentiment to affirmatively state, “God did not change” but how can you possibly prove it? We have no way for outside determination.

"Prove" is a strong word for Christians who believe in the power of faith. I would amend this by stating that Vynette's statement, "God did not change," is unsupported (but not disproved) by the Bible (particularly in the verses DagoodS mentioned in the original post. In addition, I would ask where the concept of an unchanging God is demonstrated. (Yes, lots of people say that God is unchanging, but where is it shown?)

God kills whole cities of people in the Old Testament. If genocide is wrong, and if we get morality from God, hasn't God changed? If God hasn't changed, then is genocide moral? Is it only moral if God is helping the killers? Or maybe the OT has it wrong, and God didn't commit genocide. If that's the case, then the Bible isn't inerrant--or at least it seems to have contradictions and errors.

This line of thinking led me away from believing the Bible was inerrant and was the first step towards the raging agnostic (or super-liberal Christian, depending on the day). Vynette -- how do you justify/explain this?

nsfl said...

Vynette,

Are you a 'Christian'?

(Not fun when people put sneer quotes around such labels as you would use to self-describe, now is it?)

SuperSkeptic said...

Hi Vynette --

I think I might have misinterpreted your original comment. If so, I apologize. Just to be clear: I think you're saying that you don't believe (or don't necessarily believe) the Bible is inerrant. Is that right?

If that's the case, it's certainly possible to dismiss certain passages in the Bible that are inconsistent or appear immoral. I am still doing that myself :-)

But one thing I still have trouble with is the picking-and-choosing. Which passages are right? Which are wrong? How can we tell? (Or at least, what supports the rightness or wrongness of those passages.)

I don't expect that anyone has the answers to that. I know I don't. Maybe someone will pleasantly surprise me :-)

Anonymous said...

"This Blog has been created for the express purpose of debunking Evangelical Christianity. We are all ex-Christians. Most of us are ex-ministers, and even ex-apologists for the Christian faith. We are now freethinkers, skeptics, agnostics, and atheists. With the diversity of our combined strengths, we seek to debunk Christianity."

Have you mistaken foolishness for bravery? For the things you say on this page, I pray for people who dare say such things, especially when you KNOW better. Maybe if you'd tried half as hard to share God's Word as to "debunk" it, you'd not feel this way, God have mercy on you and anybody that you may lead astray.