The Gospel of Matthew Caught In A Lie
Jesus speaking:
“If your brother sins against you, go and tell him his fault, between you and him alone. If he listens to you, you have gained your brother. But if he does not listen, take one or two others along with you, that every charge may be established by the evidence of two or three witnesses. If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church (τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ•). And if he refuses to listen even to the church (τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ•), let him be to you as a Gentile (ὁ ἐθνικὸς ) and a tax collector.” (Matthew 18: 15 – 18)
Here we have a Jesus doing no miracles, but just talking to his disciples about how to deal with a sinful brother. So an excellent question would be to ask why is a Jewish Jesus –who was not a Christian and never attended a religious meeting called a church (Greek word “the church” (τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ))- giving Church Discipline?
Secondly, why are gentiles (non-Jews) and tax collectors (Jews who worked for Rome) excluded from salvation by having committed some unpardonable sin?
The word church (ἐκκλησίᾳ) only occurs three times in the Gospels. Of these, all three occurrences are in Matthew (twice in this pericope and once in Jesus’ statement to Peter (Matt. 16: 18 which scholars feel has been interpolated (added) into the story give Peter authority). Yet, it's an acknowledged fact that Jesus was a Jew who attended the synagogue (never the Church) plus, the lingua franca of Jesus was Palestinian Aramaic which had no word for church as Greek did (a term taken over from Greek philosophical schools).
Apologetically, one pastor tried to explain some of the contradiction by telling me that Jesus (as both God and all knowing) knew the Church would appear after his ascension to Heaven (Acts 1), so he was simply prophesying Church Discipline.
My counter to his response was that if Jesus (as an all knowing God) really did know the Church was coming, then why didn’t Jesus also know that gentiles would be a major part of it? Why did Jesus NOT know about the strong conflicts between Peter and Paul over gentiles? What was the whole purpose of the “pillars” council concerning gentiles in Acts 15 headed by Jesus’ brother James?
Conclusion
Like the conflicts and contradictions in the Birth Narratives and the Resurrection Stories; what we have in this pericope is a firsthand look at how the Jesus tradition was put together though total creative fabrication (lies). What we have in Matthew’s Gospels a total anachronistic screw up of the facts in order to give credence and total truth to the Church!
Finally: The Author Of The Gospel Of Matthew To Spend Eternity In Hell (The Lake of Fire)
But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death. Revelation 21: 8
Harry McCall
“If your brother sins against you, go and tell him his fault, between you and him alone. If he listens to you, you have gained your brother. But if he does not listen, take one or two others along with you, that every charge may be established by the evidence of two or three witnesses. If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church (τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ•). And if he refuses to listen even to the church (τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ•), let him be to you as a Gentile (ὁ ἐθνικὸς ) and a tax collector.” (Matthew 18: 15 – 18)
Here we have a Jesus doing no miracles, but just talking to his disciples about how to deal with a sinful brother. So an excellent question would be to ask why is a Jewish Jesus –who was not a Christian and never attended a religious meeting called a church (Greek word “the church” (τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ))- giving Church Discipline?
Secondly, why are gentiles (non-Jews) and tax collectors (Jews who worked for Rome) excluded from salvation by having committed some unpardonable sin?
The word church (ἐκκλησίᾳ) only occurs three times in the Gospels. Of these, all three occurrences are in Matthew (twice in this pericope and once in Jesus’ statement to Peter (Matt. 16: 18 which scholars feel has been interpolated (added) into the story give Peter authority). Yet, it's an acknowledged fact that Jesus was a Jew who attended the synagogue (never the Church) plus, the lingua franca of Jesus was Palestinian Aramaic which had no word for church as Greek did (a term taken over from Greek philosophical schools).
Apologetically, one pastor tried to explain some of the contradiction by telling me that Jesus (as both God and all knowing) knew the Church would appear after his ascension to Heaven (Acts 1), so he was simply prophesying Church Discipline.
My counter to his response was that if Jesus (as an all knowing God) really did know the Church was coming, then why didn’t Jesus also know that gentiles would be a major part of it? Why did Jesus NOT know about the strong conflicts between Peter and Paul over gentiles? What was the whole purpose of the “pillars” council concerning gentiles in Acts 15 headed by Jesus’ brother James?
Conclusion
Like the conflicts and contradictions in the Birth Narratives and the Resurrection Stories; what we have in this pericope is a firsthand look at how the Jesus tradition was put together though total creative fabrication (lies). What we have in Matthew’s Gospels a total anachronistic screw up of the facts in order to give credence and total truth to the Church!
Finally: The Author Of The Gospel Of Matthew To Spend Eternity In Hell (The Lake of Fire)
But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death. Revelation 21: 8
Harry McCall
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